Understanding oAuth workflow - oauth-2.0

I am reading an article which talks oAuth workflow. Article has a sequence diagram:
I have few questions about the oAuth workflow:
The first endpoint shouldn't it be called Authenticate and not Authorize? Because at this stage user is authenticating himself.
If someone steals the access token, does it means he gains access to the resource?
Does the client app needs to manage multiple calls or we can use some nuget package for .net based clients to abstract it for us ?

The first endpoint shouldn't it be called Authenticate and not Authorize? Because at this stage user is authenticating himself.
The user is authenticating, but at the same time the user is authorizing the application for the permissions the app requests (scopes).
I think that's why it is called an authorize endpoint.
If someone steals the access token, does it means he gains access to the resource?
Yes, they would be able to act on your behalf until the token expires.
This is why the token should always only be sent over secure channels (HTTPS only).
In this regard tokens aren't better than cookies, but tokens usually expire faster than cookies.
Does the client app needs to manage multiple calls or we can use some nuget package for .net based clients to abstract it for us ?
You can use Microsoft.Identity.Client (aka MSAL) to get tokens in some of the scenarios.
If you have an ASP.NET Core Web App, you would also need something like Microsoft.Identity.Web.

Related

How to prevent non-approved 3rd Party SPA access to resource when using OAuth 2.0 for authorisation?

I'm trying to allow access to our publicly facing APIs to approved Single Page Applications only.
We currently use OAuth 2.0 to control access to our APIs. The high level scenario is that our users will access our publicly available SPA, provide their username and password, and then be able to use the SPA which in turn will be able to use our APIs.
The current best practice for OAuth 2.0 with SPA is to use the authorisation code grant with a client id but without the client secret, as obviously an SPA cannot keep any secrets.
My question is how can we prevent a third party SPA from accessing our APIs. I.e. they could extract the existing client_id from our SPA and request an authorisation code in the same way as our first party SPA. Assuming they can persuade a user to login they can then access our APIs.
Is the pre-registered redirect URL the only defence in this scenario? If so, does that mean that if we switch to using the resource owner credentials grant for a better user experience (not recommended I know) there would be no protection from third party apps at all?
I've read the various RFCs for OAuth and this page in particular is very useful but doesn't quite answer my question:
https://auth0.com/blog/oauth2-implicit-grant-and-spa/
Indeed the pre-registered Redirect URI is the only defense mechanism in this case of a public Client when using the so-called Implicit grant type. An attacker may trick the user in starting the flow but will not receive the issued token on a Redirect URL that it controls. This is similar to tricking the user into starting any other login flow.
Since the attacker does not obtain a token (it is still delivered on the intended Redirect URI controlled by the Client) he cannot access your APIs, even if he can persuade the user to login.
When the attacker controls DNS things become more dangerous but that goes for a lot of things outside of OAuth 2.0 as well. In general: delivering tokens to an in-browser app is going to suffer from this type of vulnerability regardless of the protocol used.
Switching to Resource Owner Password Credentials has a lot of drawbacks, including one where the attacker can present an app similar to yours to obtain the username/password (which also block you from upgrading to multi-factor authentication as the other grant types would allow you to).
In summary: there is protection against it although not super strong.
FWIW: the latest OAuth 2.0 best practices suggest that tokens should no longer be directly delivered to the Redirect URI but use an intermediate short-loved one-time usage Authorization Code instead to allow the SPA to get its tokens in an XHR call directly from the token endpoint.

How to implement OpenID Connect authentication with 3rd party IDPs in a microservices architecture

For the past 10+ days I've read an watched ALL the content I could find on understanding OAuth2 and OpenID Connect, only to find that many people disagree on the implementation, which really confuses me.
To my understanding, all the articles and examples I found assume you want access to eg. google calendar, profile info or emails if you eg. login with google, but I do NOT need to access other than my own API's - I only want to use Google, Facebook etc for logging in, and getting an id which I can link to my user in my own database - nothing more than that.
I'll try illustrate my use case and use that as an example.
A note on the diagram: the Authentication service could probably be built into the API Gateway - not that i matters for this example, since this is not about "where to do it", but "how to do it the best way" possible, for an architecture such as mine, where it's used for my own API's / Microservices, and not accessing Google, Facebook etc. external API's
If you can understand what I'm trying to illustrate with this diagram above, please tell me if I've misunderstood this.
The most basic requirements for this architecture you see here are:
Users can login with Google, Facebook, etc.
The same login will be used for all micro-services
OpenId user will have a linked account in the database
User access is defined in my own db, based on groups, roles and permissions
I do not intend to use external API's after the user is authenticated and logged in. No need for ever accessing a users calendar, email etc. so I really just need the authentication part and nothing else (proof of successful login). All user access is defined in my own database.
So a few fundamental questions comes to mind.
First of all, is OpenID Connect even the right tool for the job for authentication only (I'll have no use for authorization, since I will not need read/write access to google / facebook API's other than getting the ID from authenticating)?
People generally do not agree on whether to use the ID or Access token for accessing your own API's. As far as I understand the ID token is for the client (user-agent) only, and the access token is for eg. accessing google calendar, emails etc.... External API's of the OpenID Provider... but since I'll only be accessing my own API's, do I event need the access token or the ID token - what is the correct way to protect your own API's?
If the ID token is really just for the client, so it can show eg. currently logged in user, without going to the DB, I have 0 use for it, since I'll probably query the user from from the db and store it in redux for my react frontend app.
Dilemma: To store user details, groups, roles and permission inside JWT or not for API authorization?
By only storing the user identifier in the token, it means that I always allow authenticated users that has a valid token, to call endpoints BEFORE authorization and first then determine access based on the db query result and the permissions in my own database.
By storing more data about the user inside the JWT, it means that in some cases, I'd be able to do the authorization / access (group, role, permission) check before hitting the API - only possible with user info, groups, roles and permission stored inside a JWT issued upon login. In some cases it would not be possible due to eg. the CMS content access permissions being on a per-node level. But still it would mean a little better performance.
As you can see on the diagram I'm sending all API requests through the gateway, which will (in itself or with an authentication service) translate the opaque access token into some JWT with an identifier, so I can identify the user in the graph database - and then verify if the user has the required groups, roles and permissions - not from an external API, but from my own database like you see on the diagram.
This seems like a lot of work on every request, even if the services can share the JWT in case multiple services should need to cross call each other.
The advantage of always looking up the user, and his permissions in the db, is naturally that the moment the user access levels change, he is denied/granted access immediately and it will always be in sync. If I store the user details, groups, roles and permission inside a JWT and persist that in the client localstorage, I guess it could pose a security issue right, and it would be pretty hard to update the user info, groups, roles and permissions inside that JWT?
One big advantage of storing user access levels and info inside the JWT is of course that in many cases I'd be able to block the user from calling certain API's, instead of having to determine access after a db lookup.
So the whole token translation thing means increased security at the cost of performance, but is is generally recommended and worth it? Or is it safe enough to store user info and groups, roles, permissions inside the JWT?
If yes, do I store all that information from my own DB in the ID Token, Access token or a 3rd token - what token is sent to the API and determines if the user should be granted access to a given resource based on his permissions in the db? Do I really need an access token if I don't need to interact with the ID providers API? Or do I store and append all my groups, roles, permissions inside the ID token (that doesn't seem clean to me) issued by OpenID connect, and call the API and authorize my own API endpoints using that, even if some say you should never use the ID token to access an API? Or do I create a new JWT to store all the info fetched from my database, which is to be used for deciding if the user can access a given resource / API endpoint?
Please do not just link to general specs or general info, since I've already read it all - I just failed to understand how to apply all that info to my actual use case (the diagram above). Try to please be as concrete as possible.
Made another attempt to try and simply the flow:
The following answer does only apply for a OpenID Connect authentication flow with a 3rd party IDP (like Google). It does not apply for an architecture where you host your own IDP.
(There are some API gateways (e.g Tyk or Kong) which support OpenID Connect out of the box.)
You can use JWTs (ID token) to secure your APIs. However, this has one disadvantage. JWTs cannot be revoked easily.
I would not recommend this. Instead you should implement an OAuth2 authorization server which issues access tokens for your API. (In this case, you have two OAuth2 flows. One for authentication and one for authorization. The ID and access token from the IDP are used only for authentication.)
The following picture shows a setup where the API gateway and authentication/authorization server are two separate services. (As mentioned above, the authentication/authorization can also be done by the API gateway.)
The authentication flow (Authorization Code Grant) calls are marked blue. The authorization flow (Implicit Grant) calls are marked green.
1: Your web app is loaded from the app server.
2a: The user clicks on your login button, your web app builds the authorization URL and opens it. (See: Authorization Request)
2b: Because the user hasn't authenticated and has no valid session with your authorization server, the URL he wanted to access is stored and your authorization server responds with a redirect to its login page.
3: The login page is loaded from your authorization server.
4a: The user clicks on "Login with ...".
4b: Your authorization server builds the IDP authorization URL and responds with a redirect to it. (See: Authentication Request)
5a: The IDP authorization URL is opend.
5b: Because the user hasn't authenticated and has no valid session with the IDP, the URL he wanted to access is stored and the IDP responds with a redirect to its login page.
6: The login page is loaded from the IDP.
7a: The user fills in his credentials and clicks on the login button.
7b: The IDP checks the credentials, creates a new session and responds with a redirect to the stored URL.
8a: The IDP authorization URL is opend again.
(The approval steps are ignored here for simplicity.)
8b: The IDP creates an authorization and responds with a redirect to the callback URL of your authorization server. (See: Authentication Response)
9a: The callback URL is opened.
9b: Your authorization server extracts the authorization code from the callback URL.
10a: Your authorization server calls the IDP's token endpoint, gets an ID and access token and validates the data in the ID token. (See: Token Request)
(10b: Your authorization server calls the IDP's user info endpoint if some needed claims aren't available in the ID token.)
11a/b: Your authorization server queries/creates the user in your service/DB, creates a new session and responds with a redirect to the stored URL.
12a: The authorization URL is opend again.
(The approval steps are ignored here for simplicity.)
12b/+13a/b: Your authorization server creates/gets the authorization (creates access token) and responds with a redirect to the callback URL of your web app. (See: Access Token Response)
14a: The callback URL is opened.
14b: Your web app extracts the access token from the callback URL.
15: Your web app makes an API call.
16/17/18: The API gateway checks the access token, exchanges the access token with an JWT (which contains user infos, ...) and forwards the call.
A setup where the authorization server calls the API gateway is also possible. In this case, after the authorization is done, the authorization server passes the access token and JWT to the API gateway. Here, however, everytime the user infos change the authorization server has to "inform" the API gateway.
This is a very long question. But I believe most can be summarised by answering below,
To my understanding, all the articles and examples I found assume you want access to eg. google calendar, profile info or emails if you eg. login with google,
You do not necessarily use Access token (ID token in some occasions) to access the services offered by token issuer.You can consume tokens by your own APIs. What these Identity Providers (synonym to Authorization server, or IDP in shorthand) is to hold identities of end users. For example, typical internet have a Facebook account. With OAuth and OpenID Connect, the same user get the ability to consume your API or any OAuth/OIDC accepted service. This reduce user profile creation for end users.
In corporate domain, OAuth and OIDC serves the same purpose. Having a single Azure AD account lets you to consume MS Word as well as Azure AD's OIDC will issue tokens which can be used to Authorise against an in-house API or an third party ERP product (used in organization) which support OIDC based authentication. Hope it's clear now
A note on the diagram is that the Authentication service could probably be built into the API Gateway - not sure if that would be better?
If you are planning to implement an API gateway, think twice. If things are small scale and if you think you can maintain it, then go ahead. But consider about API managers which could provide most of your required functionalities. I welcome you to read this article about WSO2 API manger and understand its capabilities (No I'm not working for them).
For example, that API manager has built in authentication handling mechanism for OAuth and OIDC. It can handle API authentication with simple set of configurations. With such solution you get rid of the requirement of implement everything.
What if you can't use an API manager and has to do it yourself
OpenID Connect is for authentication. Your application can validate the id token and authenticate end user. To access APIs through API Gateway, I think you should utilise Access token.
To validate the access token, you can use introspection endpoint of the identity provider. And to get user information, you can use user-info endpoint.
Once access token is validated, API gateway could create a session for a limited time (ideally to be less or equal to access token lifetime). Consequent requests should come with this session to accept by API gateway. Alternatively, you can still use validated access token. Since you validated it at the first call, you may cache for a certain time period thus avoiding round trips to validations.
To validate user details, permission and other grants, well you must wither bind user to a session or else associate user to access token from API gateway at token validation. I'm also not super clear about this as I have no idea on how your DB logic works.
First Appreciate your patience in writing a very valuable question in this forum
we too have same situation and problem
I want to go through ,as images are blocked in our company in detail
Was trying to draw paralles to similar one quoted in the book
Advance API In Practise - Prabath Siriwerdena [ page 269]Federating access to API's Chapter. Definitely worth reading of his works
API GW should invoke Token Exchange OAUTH2.0 Profile to IDP [ provided the IDP should support TOken Exchange profile for OAUTH 2.0
The Absence of API Gateway , will result in quite bespoke development
for Access Control for each API Check
you land up in having this check at each of the api or microservice [ either as library which does work for you as a reusable code]
definitely will become a choking point.]

Can I use Resource owner password flow with SPA?

I'm trying to implement authentication/authorization in my solution. I have a bunch of backend services(including identity service) under API Gateway, "backend for frontend" service, and SPA (React + Redux). I have read about OAuth2.0/OpenIdConnect, and I can't understand, why I shouldn't use Resource owner password flow?
A client ( my backend for frontend server ) is absolutely trusted, I can simply send users login/password to the server, then it forwards them to Identity server, receives the access token && refresh token and stores refresh token in memory(session, Redis, etc), and send the access token to SPA, which stores it in local storage. If SPA will send a request with the expired access token, the server will request a new one using refresh token and forwards the request to API Gateway with the new access token.
I think in my case a flows with redirects can provide worth user experience, and are too complicated.
What have I misunderstood? What potholes I'll hit if I'll implement authentication/authorization as I described above?
OAuth 2.0 specification's introduction section gives one key information on the problem it tries to solve. I have highlighted a section below,
In the traditional client-server authentication model, the client
requests an access-restricted resource (protected resource) on the
server by authenticating with the server using the resource owner's
credentials. In order to provide third-party applications access to
restricted resources, the resource owner shares its credentials with
the third party
As a summary what OAuth wants to provide is an authorization layer which removes the requirement of exposing end user credentials to a third party. To achieve this it presents several flows (ex:- Authorization code flow, Implicit flow etc.) to obtain tokens which are good enough to access protected resources.
But not all clients may able to adopt those flows. And this is the reason OAuth spec introduce ROPF. This is highlighted from following extraction,
The resource owner password credentials grant type is suitable in
cases where the resource owner has a trust relationship with the
client, such as the device operating system or a highly privileged
application.The authorization server should take special care when
enabling this grant type and only allow it when other flows are not
viable.
According to your explanation, you have a trust relationship with client. And your flow seems to be work fine. But from my end I see following issues.
Trust
The trust is between end user and the client application. When you release and use this as a product, will your end users trust your client and share their credentials.? For example, if your identity server is Azure AD, will end users share Azure credentials with your client.?
Trust may be not an issue if you are using a single identity server and it will be the only one you will ever use. Which brings us the next problem,
Support for multiple identity servers
One advantage you get with OAuth 2 and OpenID Connect is the ability to use multiple identity servers. For example, you may move between Azure AD, Identityserver or other identity servers which of customer's choice (ex:- they already use on internally and they want your app to use it). Now if your application wants to consume such identity servers, end users will have to share credentials with your client. Sometimes, these identity servers may not even support ROPF flow. And yet again TRUST become an issue.!
A solution ?
Well I see one good flow you can use. You have one front end server and a back-end server. I believe your client is the combination of both. If that's the case you could try to adopt authorization code flow. It's true your front end is a SPA. But you have a backend you can utilise to obtain tokens. Only challenge is to connect front end SPA with back end for token response (pass access token to SPA and store other tokens in back-end). With that approach, you avoid above mentioned issues.

OpenId connect (OAuth 2): How does look the flow when Resource Owner is not the end user (SSO)?

I would like to provide some standarized SSO mechanism in my application (some different clients, growing number of services in the backend). I am wondering if OIDC/OAuth 2 is the right tool for it.
In all examples I have seen, end user is the Resource Owner and it grants permissions (or not) to some external apps by redidericting to a page asking for permissions.
My use case is different, I want to use OAuth inside my system (for apis, web pages etc.): resource owner is i.e. some service with database (plus administrator who have access to it), end user tries to get some resources from the system. User cannot grant anything, he can be granted. I think it's the most classic scenario, which can be named Single-Sign-On. Is there any standard flow for this in OAuth 2 (or preferably OpenId Connect)? Is it achievable? Or am I looking at a wrong tool?
OIDC/OAuth can be used for both consumer as well as enterprise scenario's. The consent steps of OAuth are useful in consumer oriented scenario's. When dealing with enterprise scenario's like yours, there's no point in asking consent since it is implicit, at least for the enterprise's apps. That is certainly covered by OAuth/OIDC: the Authorization Server is not required to ask for consent and can (typically) be configured to skip that step for particular Clients. So: using OpenID Connect without consent would be suitable.
For your usecase you can use combination of OpenID Connect and OAuth Client_Creds flow. For example suppose you have a HRMS application which needs to get the employee data to show to the employee from some DB.
Register HRMS with OPenID Provider
Register HRMS as Client to OAuth Server (OpenID Server and OAuth Server can be same)
When User comes to HRMS application:
a. Check for Id_token cookie, if not present then redirect to IDP
b. IDP authenticates and if successful redirects back to SP with ID token
c. If token is valid then SP sets the token as cookie in the browser using another redirect to itself but to the home page
Now All processing will be server side:
a. HRMS app hits the IDP to get the User Data
b. If successful then it hits the OAuth Server to get the access_token
c. if successful then it uses the access_token to talk to DB Service and
get the data
SP=Service Provider, IDP = Identity Provider
Actual flow can be a little different based on security considerations.
Hope this makes it helps.

Twitter update access with OAuth and DotNetOpenAuth

I'm trying to use OAuth with .NET (DotNetOpenAuth) to send updates to a Twitter account via a web application. I understand the basic workflow of OAuth and Twitter.
Where I'm confused if is it useful in a server web application? I don't want any user interaction.
But how it seems after an application start, the request token needs to be recreated and also an access token. This involves user interaction.
What is the correct workflow for my case?
Storing the request token or access token in config file?
Or the easist way, using HTTP basic authentication?
Thanks
If I understand you correctly your application will not be interacting with Twitter on behalf of your users but will be acting as the Twitter account for your application.
In this case there are 2 main factors to consider.
1) Do you want "from API" attached to each status as will be if you use basic auth or your applications name will happen if you use OAuth.
2) Do you want to put in the extra effort to implement OAuth.
If you decide to go with OAuth you would store your apps consumer key/secret and the accounts access token in configuration just like you would store the accounts screenname/password.
Your "request token needs to be recreated" phrase suggests you might be running into the problem where every time your user visits you need to re-authorize to Twitter, and perhaps you're looking for a way to access the user's Twitter account while he's not at your web site, and how can you do this when their token isn't fresh from being re-authorized. Is that right?
If so, the user isn't supposed to have to re-authorize Twitter every time they visit your site. The token is supposed to last a long time, which would also allow your site to access their Twitter account when they are not directly interacting with your web site. The problem may be that you haven't implemented the IConsumerTokenManager interface, but are instead using the default InMemoryTokenManager, which is for sample use only, since this memory-only token manager loses tokens every time the web app is restarted. Your own implementation of this simple interface should store and read the tokens out of some persistent storage such as a database.

Resources