Does anyone has any information about s_sess cookie. All I can find is that it's a performance cookie.
The issue here is : My client has 2 websites, one of them is storing the value of query string parameter "cid" in s_sess cookie while the other site is not. Both of them has same adobe analytics code and both sites are on third party cookies.
Many of Adobe's plugins make use of the s.c_r() and s.c_w() (legacy H code) or s.Util.cookieRead() and s.Util.cookieWrite() (AppMeasurement) functions, which are for reading/writing cookies, respectively. Out of the box, you specify a cookie name and it writes to that cookie namespace.
However, Adobe also has a "combined" cookie plugin. With this plugin, all cookie reading/writing with the above functions are instead written to one of two cookies:
s_sess - This cookie is for session scoped "cookies"
s_pers - This cookie is for "cookies" that persist longer than session
So for example, let's say on the following page:
http://www.yoursite.com/index.html?cid=some_code
And in your AA code, you have the following:
// look for cid= param to put into campaign variable
s.campaign = s.Util.getQueryParam('cid');
// use getValOnce plugin to make sure duplicate values do not pop it again
s.campaign = s.getValOnce(s.campaign, 'cid', 0);
Without the combined cookies function, you will see a cookie named "cid" in document.cookies with value of "some_code" set to expire on Session.
But with the combined cookies function, you will not see a cookie named "cid". Instead, you will see a cookie named "s_sess" with a value like this:
// encoded
%20cid=some_code%3B
// unencoded
cid=some_code;
Or, if you use a plugin that makes use of s.c_w or s.Util.cookieWrite for longer than Session, you will instead see the s_pers cookie populated the same way, but with a timestamp value thrown into the mix, e.g.
// encoded
%20cid=some_code%7C1519759520136%3B
// unencoded
cid=some_code|1519759520136;
Multiple "cookies" are separated by (unencoded) "; " (similar to document.cookie)
But why do I see it on one site but not the other?
Assuming your implementation is in fact identical, my guess based on what you posted vs. common implementations is you have code similar to my example above: You grab cid= param for campaign tracking and make use of getValOnce or some other plugin that pushes the value to a cookie, and you went to siteA page with a campaign code (cid= param) but not siteB.
Related
How do I clear/remove query string parameters, which my MVC action, doesn't require/support?
For instance, my action requires, say an id and a bool flag, so the url would be something like: http://localhost:someport/controller/action/?id=1&remove=true
But, if a user types in something like, http://localhost:someport/controller/action/?id=1&remove=true&some-junk-param=0
Then, I want the some-junk-param to be removed and not shown in the address bar, when the request is processed.
Any thoughts?
If you need to get rid of unwanted query string parameters, you have two general options:
Do it on server-side. You can achive this only with redirection, that means when browser asks URL with bad query string, server redirects browser to URL with good query string.
Caveats:
In this case we have redundant query just for cleaning query string.
User will have trash in browser history.
Do it on client-side. ASP.NET MVC Model binder will get only expected parameters from query string, so it's nothing bad with having other values in query string. You can check your URL on client-side with javascript and rewrite it with or without changing history using History API (IE10+).
Caveats:
In this case you will have to support consistency about allowed parameters between JS and C# code
Of course every way is suitable for it's own cases, but looking at caveats the second way is better, because it affects developer expirience whereas first way affects user expirience.
I have a website built from Ember.js. A user can access a page through URL http://..../view?showTitle=true. However I don't want to explicitly expose the parameter showTitle=true to the user (meaning user will only see http://..../view). This URL is automatically generated and serves as a redirect destination URL. So, I have to remove it manually somewhere before the page load. But I still need this value of this query parameter to query data. Is there a way to achieve that (A example would be great)? What about do it without refreshing the router?
Actually, an example of your scenario would be greater :)
There are some other ways to store data while transitioning to a route. Such as: storing the params in transition object or storing the value in a service. Create a redirection route, use beforeModel hook to grab the value from query params then do a redirection to the real route.
A working example is: ember-twiddle-1
By the way, even if you don't describe your queryParamsin your routes, you can access them via transition.queryParams. This seems a bit hacky. But it works: ember-twiddle-2 (Note: It doesn't work in the same route.)
Updated:
At the setupController hook you can override the controller parameters. So you can remove the parameters from the url. ember-twiddle-3
Like the question says, how do I add a parameter to a URL?
Example:
When you click on a link to get a featured product on Product Hunt, the URL is appended with ?ref=producthunt.
Can I just add a parameter like this manually to the few links that I have on my website? Are there any scenarios where this might be suboptimal to do?
The parameters in the URL correspond to the superglobal $_GET array.
It means that if your URL is in the form
www.domain.com?key1=val1&key2=val2 ,
then $_GET[key1] contains val1 , and so on.
It is perfectly legitimate to add these parameters manually in a link (a typical use case would be a login button, which redirects you to the current URL and appends &todo=login . You can then add a bit of PHP code that triggers the login process when $_GET contains the value 'login' at the key 'todo').
The other way of adding these parameters is forms. In an HTML form, you specify a 'method' which can be 'get' or 'post'.
If you choose 'get', when the form is submitted, the URL will automatically be appended with the form answers.
NB: It is generally NOT SAFE to directly read values from the $_GET, as the user can fill it with any value (just by changing the URL) so it is good practice to use filters that ensure inputs are safe. Check http://www.w3schools.com/php/php_filter.asp for more on filters
The parameters added to the url is called query string and they have a format
it must start will ?
every paraper will be seperated with &
Example: http://www.yoururl.com?name=myname&age=34&ect=somethingelse
The mistake you did is by putting ?= which is not converted by your web server.
you can pas like '?websitename=website-name'
Querystring parameters are key value pairs that are separated from the URL's domain and path with a ? and separated from each other with an &, i.e ?key=value&key2=value2.
The values can be accessed client-side (in Javascript) and server-side by the webserver or by a server-side language is being used, PHP, ASP.NET, Java.
Some values should be encoded using a function such as encodeURIComponent to ensure that they are valid.
Risks
You need to be careful that the querystring does not contain any sensitive information such as a sequential order number, i.e ?order=5 as someone could manually change the value to see another user's order (?order=6, if no other authentication in place). The order value should be encrypted so it cannot be guessed. Also, do not execute any code passed in on the querystring with eval() as the contents could be changed by a malicious user to execute a crosssite scripting (XSS) attack on another user and steal their cookie or login credentials.
Is there away to get the current fragment from a route that was issued via action link. This is how I am getting the action from the route.
string currentAction = requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] as string ?? "index";
Can I do something similar to this?
string currentFragment = requestContext.RouteData.Values["Fragment"] as string ?? "";
No, you can't do anything like this. The fragment (everything that follows the # sign in an url) is never sent to the server by the browser, so the sole fact of talking about getting the url fragment server side simply doesn't make sense.
So if you have the following url: http://example.com/foo/bar?key1=value1#abc the server will never be able to fetch abc simply because the client will never send it.
As it has already been pointed out that is not possible. Document fragments (the string after the hash as you call it) are intended for the browsers only to correctly position the viewport. They have no meaning for the server and therefore are not transmitted there.
There is however a workaround you can use. Repeat the fragment as part of your url to make it accessible for the server.
Look at the permalink to the answers in this question. For instance, the link to my answer looks like this:
http://stackoverflow.com/questions
/6285833/get-current-fragment-in-route-asp-net-mvc/6286097#6286097
See how the value 6286097 is duplicated as the last route parameter. It's intentional. You can use this technique as well.
P.S. The fragment must point to an identifier in the document (id of some HTML element). At least in XHTML only identifiers work as fragments. Valid ids may not begin with a digit therefore instead of #6286097 use something like #answer-6286097.
P.S.#2. Do not use any JavaScript trickery to get around this limitation. Basic site functionality and design must work without JavaScript - don't listen to anyone who tells you otherwise. Fragments obviously belong to the basic tool box. Use JavaScript only for advanced interactivity.
I have a workaround for you, but first of all lets get more into the problem.
The strings after the hash symbol which are called Fragment values are not query parameters but they are strings to be read by the client-side (living in the browser) and the server cannot read them because they are not sent to the server by the browser.
Some authentication providers like Google and Azure send the access token as Fragment value for security reasons so that they are not transferred over the internet after they get sent as direct response from the authentication provider.
The only way you can come around that is to use javascript to convert the fragment values to query parameters by replacing the '#' with '?' and redirecting to the endpoint in your server controller.
I suppose the easiest way is to handle all that from server, meaning you get get the request in server, send a javascript code to the browser on the fly, that replaces the '#' into '?' and redirects to your second endpoint which reads the token as strong parameter.
Here how you can do it in ASP.NET Core 3.1:
[AllowAnonymous]
[HttpGet("authredirect")]
[Produces("text/html")]
public virtual ContentResult ConvertUrlFragmentToQueryParamThenRedirect()
{
return Content("<html><script>window.location.href=window.location.href.replace('#', '?').replace('authredirect', 'authparams')</script></html>", "text/html");
}
[AllowAnonymous]
[HttpGet("authparams")]
public virtual void GetAccessToken([FromQuery] string access_token)
{
// now you have your access token server side here
}
Please remember to set your redirectUrl to the correct one, in this case 'YOUR REDIRECT URL/authredirect'.
I'm considering using the hash method to create static urls to content that is managed by ajax calls in a Asp.Net MVC. The proof of concept i'm working on is a profile page /user/profile where one can browse and edit different sections. You could always ask for the following url /user/profile#password to access directly to you profile page, in the change password section
However, i'm wondering if i'm not starting this the bad way, since apparently i can't access the part after the hash in any way, except by declaring a route value for the hash in global.asax. So i'm wondering if this is the right way to access this part of the url?
Am i supposed to declare a route value, or is there another way to work with hash values (a framework, javascript or mvc)?
Edited to add:
In pure javascript, i have no problem using the window.location.hash property, i'm not sure though how standard it is in today's browsers, hence the question about a javascript framework/plugin that would use it.
The thing is that the part that follows the hash (#) is never sent to the server into the HTTP request so the server has absolutely no way of reading it. So no need to waste time in searching for something that doesn't exist.
You could on the other hand tune your routes to generate links that contain the hash part so that client scripts can read it.
Send the hash value document.location.hash as a parameter to the controller action of your choice.
This can be done in the code if needed...
RedirectResult(Url.Action("profile") + "#password");
should work fine