PingFederate OAuth 2.0 custom grant to get access / refresh token? - oauth-2.0

We are setting up a OAuth 2.0 via PingFederate in our organization. The scenario in question is as follows - We have a website in which the customer would be logging in using user name and password. There are are also links within the site to redirect the customer to a partner site. The partner site would be securely passed some basic information via SSO payload.
The partner site would also need to be able to call back to our Apis (call made in the background) to get additional information about our customer which they will then use to display on their site.
Our Api’s are currently setup to be accessed via access token which the consumers of the Api get by following the Authorization Grant flow.
In the partner redirect scenario we want partner site not go through the Authorization code flow when it makes the Api call because the customer would have already logged into our site to start with using their credentials but instead when we redirect to the partner site provide it securely (SSO payload) the access and refresh token which it can then use to make the Api calls ?.
Is there a grant type that I can invoke telling my authorization provider (PingFederate) that I trust the customer based on the information that he has already provided now give me access token and refresh token and then redirect using that information (None of the grant types that I am aware is able to support it - does Ping OAuth setup support a flow wherein I can say I trust this customer give me access and refresh token )?

It sounds like you'd be combining SAML and OAuth to meet your business need. While it's not defined as a standard grant type, one potential solution is to include an Access Token in the SAML Assertion attribute payload so the partner application can then make calls without going through additional redirects. PingFederate does offer the ability to do this by using OGNL to create an access token in the attribute contract fulfillment. An example of how to do this is in our SDK documentation: https://www.pingidentity.com/content/dam/developer/documentation/pingfederate/server-sdk/9.3/index.html?com/pingidentity/sdk/oauth20/AccessTokenIssuer.html
If you need more guidance on selecting the right OAuth grant type, we have information on our developer portal that covers this. Please refer to: https://www.pingidentity.com/content/developer/en/resources/oauth-2-0-developers-guide.html#get_token

Related

How do you implement the new DocuSign OAuth2.0 SOBO using eSignature SDK?

I'm in the process of converting an internal C# API that uses a legacy SOBO integration to one that uses OAuth 2.0 as required by DocuSign. The legacy application makes all requests to DocuSign using DocuSign credentials of an application user (a non-person) and injects SOBO data (email address) in the appropriate header when we need to generate an embedded sending URI and have it appear that the envelope was sent by a real person without using their credentials.
I have successfully converted another (non-SOBO) internal API using JWT grant, but I do not know how replicate the SOBO dependent workflow. Have read Matt King's article "From the Trenches: OAuth 2.0 and the new SOBO", but still a bit confused. I know how to extract userId from email address as mentioned in the article, but not sure what do with it. Similar to my legacy application, I am using a application user to get consent and ask for JWT token without prompting internal users for their consent. Is this still possible using OAuth 2.0?
Happy to help here. Once you've retrieved the user's apiUserName / userId you'll want to add it into the JWT assertion's sub line.
When you go to generate the token, if consent has not been provided by or for the user, our system will send back an error of "Consent_Required." See https://www.docusign.com/blog/developers/oauth-jwt-granting-consent for different methods of granting consent.
For individual consent, the user needs to go to a specific URL containing your clientId, redirectUri, and some additional scopes. If they hadn't previously consented to the scopes in your OAuth request they will be prompted to do this once. You can confirm consent has been applied by having them visit the same link afterwards, which will send them directly to your redirectUri.
Domain consent works a little differently -- you need to have an organization, a claimed domain, and the users you're providing consent on behalf of need to have an email address that is part of that claimed domain.
Happy to connect and walk you through it -- if you can open a ticket at support.docusign.com and in the details request they reach out to me I should be able to have the case transferred and work with you from there.
Regards,
Matt King

How to implement OpenID Connect authentication with 3rd party IDPs in a microservices architecture

For the past 10+ days I've read an watched ALL the content I could find on understanding OAuth2 and OpenID Connect, only to find that many people disagree on the implementation, which really confuses me.
To my understanding, all the articles and examples I found assume you want access to eg. google calendar, profile info or emails if you eg. login with google, but I do NOT need to access other than my own API's - I only want to use Google, Facebook etc for logging in, and getting an id which I can link to my user in my own database - nothing more than that.
I'll try illustrate my use case and use that as an example.
A note on the diagram: the Authentication service could probably be built into the API Gateway - not that i matters for this example, since this is not about "where to do it", but "how to do it the best way" possible, for an architecture such as mine, where it's used for my own API's / Microservices, and not accessing Google, Facebook etc. external API's
If you can understand what I'm trying to illustrate with this diagram above, please tell me if I've misunderstood this.
The most basic requirements for this architecture you see here are:
Users can login with Google, Facebook, etc.
The same login will be used for all micro-services
OpenId user will have a linked account in the database
User access is defined in my own db, based on groups, roles and permissions
I do not intend to use external API's after the user is authenticated and logged in. No need for ever accessing a users calendar, email etc. so I really just need the authentication part and nothing else (proof of successful login). All user access is defined in my own database.
So a few fundamental questions comes to mind.
First of all, is OpenID Connect even the right tool for the job for authentication only (I'll have no use for authorization, since I will not need read/write access to google / facebook API's other than getting the ID from authenticating)?
People generally do not agree on whether to use the ID or Access token for accessing your own API's. As far as I understand the ID token is for the client (user-agent) only, and the access token is for eg. accessing google calendar, emails etc.... External API's of the OpenID Provider... but since I'll only be accessing my own API's, do I event need the access token or the ID token - what is the correct way to protect your own API's?
If the ID token is really just for the client, so it can show eg. currently logged in user, without going to the DB, I have 0 use for it, since I'll probably query the user from from the db and store it in redux for my react frontend app.
Dilemma: To store user details, groups, roles and permission inside JWT or not for API authorization?
By only storing the user identifier in the token, it means that I always allow authenticated users that has a valid token, to call endpoints BEFORE authorization and first then determine access based on the db query result and the permissions in my own database.
By storing more data about the user inside the JWT, it means that in some cases, I'd be able to do the authorization / access (group, role, permission) check before hitting the API - only possible with user info, groups, roles and permission stored inside a JWT issued upon login. In some cases it would not be possible due to eg. the CMS content access permissions being on a per-node level. But still it would mean a little better performance.
As you can see on the diagram I'm sending all API requests through the gateway, which will (in itself or with an authentication service) translate the opaque access token into some JWT with an identifier, so I can identify the user in the graph database - and then verify if the user has the required groups, roles and permissions - not from an external API, but from my own database like you see on the diagram.
This seems like a lot of work on every request, even if the services can share the JWT in case multiple services should need to cross call each other.
The advantage of always looking up the user, and his permissions in the db, is naturally that the moment the user access levels change, he is denied/granted access immediately and it will always be in sync. If I store the user details, groups, roles and permission inside a JWT and persist that in the client localstorage, I guess it could pose a security issue right, and it would be pretty hard to update the user info, groups, roles and permissions inside that JWT?
One big advantage of storing user access levels and info inside the JWT is of course that in many cases I'd be able to block the user from calling certain API's, instead of having to determine access after a db lookup.
So the whole token translation thing means increased security at the cost of performance, but is is generally recommended and worth it? Or is it safe enough to store user info and groups, roles, permissions inside the JWT?
If yes, do I store all that information from my own DB in the ID Token, Access token or a 3rd token - what token is sent to the API and determines if the user should be granted access to a given resource based on his permissions in the db? Do I really need an access token if I don't need to interact with the ID providers API? Or do I store and append all my groups, roles, permissions inside the ID token (that doesn't seem clean to me) issued by OpenID connect, and call the API and authorize my own API endpoints using that, even if some say you should never use the ID token to access an API? Or do I create a new JWT to store all the info fetched from my database, which is to be used for deciding if the user can access a given resource / API endpoint?
Please do not just link to general specs or general info, since I've already read it all - I just failed to understand how to apply all that info to my actual use case (the diagram above). Try to please be as concrete as possible.
Made another attempt to try and simply the flow:
The following answer does only apply for a OpenID Connect authentication flow with a 3rd party IDP (like Google). It does not apply for an architecture where you host your own IDP.
(There are some API gateways (e.g Tyk or Kong) which support OpenID Connect out of the box.)
You can use JWTs (ID token) to secure your APIs. However, this has one disadvantage. JWTs cannot be revoked easily.
I would not recommend this. Instead you should implement an OAuth2 authorization server which issues access tokens for your API. (In this case, you have two OAuth2 flows. One for authentication and one for authorization. The ID and access token from the IDP are used only for authentication.)
The following picture shows a setup where the API gateway and authentication/authorization server are two separate services. (As mentioned above, the authentication/authorization can also be done by the API gateway.)
The authentication flow (Authorization Code Grant) calls are marked blue. The authorization flow (Implicit Grant) calls are marked green.
1: Your web app is loaded from the app server.
2a: The user clicks on your login button, your web app builds the authorization URL and opens it. (See: Authorization Request)
2b: Because the user hasn't authenticated and has no valid session with your authorization server, the URL he wanted to access is stored and your authorization server responds with a redirect to its login page.
3: The login page is loaded from your authorization server.
4a: The user clicks on "Login with ...".
4b: Your authorization server builds the IDP authorization URL and responds with a redirect to it. (See: Authentication Request)
5a: The IDP authorization URL is opend.
5b: Because the user hasn't authenticated and has no valid session with the IDP, the URL he wanted to access is stored and the IDP responds with a redirect to its login page.
6: The login page is loaded from the IDP.
7a: The user fills in his credentials and clicks on the login button.
7b: The IDP checks the credentials, creates a new session and responds with a redirect to the stored URL.
8a: The IDP authorization URL is opend again.
(The approval steps are ignored here for simplicity.)
8b: The IDP creates an authorization and responds with a redirect to the callback URL of your authorization server. (See: Authentication Response)
9a: The callback URL is opened.
9b: Your authorization server extracts the authorization code from the callback URL.
10a: Your authorization server calls the IDP's token endpoint, gets an ID and access token and validates the data in the ID token. (See: Token Request)
(10b: Your authorization server calls the IDP's user info endpoint if some needed claims aren't available in the ID token.)
11a/b: Your authorization server queries/creates the user in your service/DB, creates a new session and responds with a redirect to the stored URL.
12a: The authorization URL is opend again.
(The approval steps are ignored here for simplicity.)
12b/+13a/b: Your authorization server creates/gets the authorization (creates access token) and responds with a redirect to the callback URL of your web app. (See: Access Token Response)
14a: The callback URL is opened.
14b: Your web app extracts the access token from the callback URL.
15: Your web app makes an API call.
16/17/18: The API gateway checks the access token, exchanges the access token with an JWT (which contains user infos, ...) and forwards the call.
A setup where the authorization server calls the API gateway is also possible. In this case, after the authorization is done, the authorization server passes the access token and JWT to the API gateway. Here, however, everytime the user infos change the authorization server has to "inform" the API gateway.
This is a very long question. But I believe most can be summarised by answering below,
To my understanding, all the articles and examples I found assume you want access to eg. google calendar, profile info or emails if you eg. login with google,
You do not necessarily use Access token (ID token in some occasions) to access the services offered by token issuer.You can consume tokens by your own APIs. What these Identity Providers (synonym to Authorization server, or IDP in shorthand) is to hold identities of end users. For example, typical internet have a Facebook account. With OAuth and OpenID Connect, the same user get the ability to consume your API or any OAuth/OIDC accepted service. This reduce user profile creation for end users.
In corporate domain, OAuth and OIDC serves the same purpose. Having a single Azure AD account lets you to consume MS Word as well as Azure AD's OIDC will issue tokens which can be used to Authorise against an in-house API or an third party ERP product (used in organization) which support OIDC based authentication. Hope it's clear now
A note on the diagram is that the Authentication service could probably be built into the API Gateway - not sure if that would be better?
If you are planning to implement an API gateway, think twice. If things are small scale and if you think you can maintain it, then go ahead. But consider about API managers which could provide most of your required functionalities. I welcome you to read this article about WSO2 API manger and understand its capabilities (No I'm not working for them).
For example, that API manager has built in authentication handling mechanism for OAuth and OIDC. It can handle API authentication with simple set of configurations. With such solution you get rid of the requirement of implement everything.
What if you can't use an API manager and has to do it yourself
OpenID Connect is for authentication. Your application can validate the id token and authenticate end user. To access APIs through API Gateway, I think you should utilise Access token.
To validate the access token, you can use introspection endpoint of the identity provider. And to get user information, you can use user-info endpoint.
Once access token is validated, API gateway could create a session for a limited time (ideally to be less or equal to access token lifetime). Consequent requests should come with this session to accept by API gateway. Alternatively, you can still use validated access token. Since you validated it at the first call, you may cache for a certain time period thus avoiding round trips to validations.
To validate user details, permission and other grants, well you must wither bind user to a session or else associate user to access token from API gateway at token validation. I'm also not super clear about this as I have no idea on how your DB logic works.
First Appreciate your patience in writing a very valuable question in this forum
we too have same situation and problem
I want to go through ,as images are blocked in our company in detail
Was trying to draw paralles to similar one quoted in the book
Advance API In Practise - Prabath Siriwerdena [ page 269]Federating access to API's Chapter. Definitely worth reading of his works
API GW should invoke Token Exchange OAUTH2.0 Profile to IDP [ provided the IDP should support TOken Exchange profile for OAUTH 2.0
The Absence of API Gateway , will result in quite bespoke development
for Access Control for each API Check
you land up in having this check at each of the api or microservice [ either as library which does work for you as a reusable code]
definitely will become a choking point.]

Authentication and Authorization using OAuth2/OpenID Connect

I understand the OAuth 2.0 spec. allows third-party applications to grant limited access to the application, either on behalf of a resource owner or by allowing the third-party application to obtain access on its own behalf.
I have a scenario, where I have an application and I need the user to get authenticated with some IAM provider. The roles and privileges are configured in the authorization server for each user. I can query the introspection point of the authorization server and based on the scope details, my application can decide the access to any resource for the user.
In this case, the user is not the resource owner. The types of resources the user can access is decided by my application, instead of the user allowing/denying the application to access resources.
Since the user is not the resource owner, can OAuth/OpenId Connect be used in this scenario ? Is it possible with WSO2 IAM?
I tried the playground sample which is available in WSO2. Once the user logs in, there is a window which asks "playground requests access to your profile information" and requesting the user to allow/deny. Can this be avoided, since in my case the user is not allowed to make any decisions ?
If not, what are the other options to authorize/limit access to resources which is decided by the authorization server/resource server, instead of user granting access ?
Thanks,
Albie Morken
In this case, the user is not the resource owner. The types of resources the user can access is decided by my application, instead of the user allowing/denying the application to access resources.
In your scenario, you are relying on tokens issued by authorisation server to access a protected resource. The protected resource is your application. And this application must have internal mechanisms to verify the tokens it receives to grant access.
Short answer to your question is - YES
You can use openID connect for this scenario. And you have two options to adopt,
1. Use access tokens with introspection end point
You can use access tokens to grant access to your application. The client should send the access token as a bearer token as described in RFC6750. When the application end point receives a request, this access token can be validated against introspection endpoint RFC7662
2. Use ID token
ID tokens too can be used as bearer tokens.ID token is a JWT (RFC7519) and is self contained. It contains validation mechanisms as described by OpenID connect spec which are self sufficient to allow grant. And also to you can check claims it contains to authorise the end user. More can be found from this link.
I tried the playground sample which is available in WSO2. Once the user logs in, there is a window which asks "playground requests access to your profile information" and requesting the user to allow/deny. Can this be avoided, since in my case the user is not allowed to make any decisions ?
Consent page can be disabled. According to spec. it can be done by configuring identity.xml as follow,
<SkipUserConsent>true</SkipUserConsent>
It is described in their documentation too.
Hope this helped.
p.s - WSO2IS contains inbuilt XACML engine. XACML is the standard for access control. You can fine more information from this link.

OpenId connect (OAuth 2): How does look the flow when Resource Owner is not the end user (SSO)?

I would like to provide some standarized SSO mechanism in my application (some different clients, growing number of services in the backend). I am wondering if OIDC/OAuth 2 is the right tool for it.
In all examples I have seen, end user is the Resource Owner and it grants permissions (or not) to some external apps by redidericting to a page asking for permissions.
My use case is different, I want to use OAuth inside my system (for apis, web pages etc.): resource owner is i.e. some service with database (plus administrator who have access to it), end user tries to get some resources from the system. User cannot grant anything, he can be granted. I think it's the most classic scenario, which can be named Single-Sign-On. Is there any standard flow for this in OAuth 2 (or preferably OpenId Connect)? Is it achievable? Or am I looking at a wrong tool?
OIDC/OAuth can be used for both consumer as well as enterprise scenario's. The consent steps of OAuth are useful in consumer oriented scenario's. When dealing with enterprise scenario's like yours, there's no point in asking consent since it is implicit, at least for the enterprise's apps. That is certainly covered by OAuth/OIDC: the Authorization Server is not required to ask for consent and can (typically) be configured to skip that step for particular Clients. So: using OpenID Connect without consent would be suitable.
For your usecase you can use combination of OpenID Connect and OAuth Client_Creds flow. For example suppose you have a HRMS application which needs to get the employee data to show to the employee from some DB.
Register HRMS with OPenID Provider
Register HRMS as Client to OAuth Server (OpenID Server and OAuth Server can be same)
When User comes to HRMS application:
a. Check for Id_token cookie, if not present then redirect to IDP
b. IDP authenticates and if successful redirects back to SP with ID token
c. If token is valid then SP sets the token as cookie in the browser using another redirect to itself but to the home page
Now All processing will be server side:
a. HRMS app hits the IDP to get the User Data
b. If successful then it hits the OAuth Server to get the access_token
c. if successful then it uses the access_token to talk to DB Service and
get the data
SP=Service Provider, IDP = Identity Provider
Actual flow can be a little different based on security considerations.
Hope this makes it helps.

OAuth with StackExchange API

I'm trying to authenticate my user on my site using StackExchange OAuth API.
Everything works fine when the user signs up for the first time. At this point, I get the "access token", which I save in my DB.
But the next time the user signs in, access token value is actually different to the previous one. Is it supposed to be like this?
If then, how do I check for existing users who already have signed up using StackExchange?
I can get the user's information by giving a specific site name (e.g. 'stackoverflow'). But what if I don't have that information and I need to check that the user has already signed in via StackExchange?
Is there a "user" information that I can get given an accessToken?
The StackExchange OAuth implementation is not meant to authenticate users to 3rd party applications but instead it is about authorizing those 3rd party applications to get access to the StackExchange API.
The access token that you get is not a token that represents a currently logged-in user, it represents the permission to access the API on behalf of the user gave it to your application. This is the classical confusion about the scope of OAuth 2.0 which is discussed in detail here: http://oauth.net/articles/authentication/.
In summary: you can't use OAuth or the StackExchange access token to authenticate users.
StackExchange does support the OpenID protocol to facilitate the purpose that you are looking for, see https://openid.stackexchange.com/. The downside of that is that OpenID is a deprecated protocol, superseded by OpenID Connect. OpenID Connect is an authentication protocol that is actually built on top of OAuth 2.0, but is not yet supported by StackExchange.

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