I have an ASP.NET [MVC] application which has a claims based authentication scheme running. ADFS authenticates users and redirects back to the application domain with relevant token.
Now, I'd like to simulate this process from start to end. I was able to get a SAML 2.0 token object of type GenericXmlSecurityToken from ADFS via some powershell scripting but couldn't figure out how to create an SSL tunnel and pass the token to the application just to download the Index view. Any use of net.webclient ?
You have to send SAML 2.0 token to some SP application according with SAMLP standarad.
First, that application have to know how to handle SAML tokens. Second is to send it properly. If you want to send authentication response per instance you have to create HTTP POST request to your application on specific address where it is expecting it.
Take a look over SAML protocol documentation.
Related
According to the OAuth2.0 spec and the way it is implemented in OpenIddict 3.1.1, an authorization code should be retrieved by performing a GET request to the authorization endpoint. This will then redirect the user to a login page (if needed) and ask for explicit authorization from the user.
It is, however, also possible to configure a client application to use an implicit consent type, where the user does not need to explicitly give permission to the application.
My question builds on this: If I know that the user is already signed in (I have a valid access token), would it be possible to request an authorization code for a different application through a backchannel POST request (using the authorization header to specify that I have access to do this) instead of having to go through the browser for this flow?
As far as I can see in OpenIddct 3.1.1, the authorization code is generated in some middleware that handles signin results. This seems to make it difficult for me to generate such an authorization code in a custom endpoint designed for my desired scenario mentioned above.
The reason I'm wondering about this at all is because I'm building a desktop application for which I'll open a browser for the initial login, but after that I need to request an authorization code for a custom server back-end and I'd prefer not having to open the browser once more just for this purpose, since I know the user is authenticated (and authorized) to request this authorization code anyway. I would of course send the all the required information in this backchannel POST request (client_id, code_challenge, challenge_method, scopes...)
EDIT:
The reason I need a second access token is because:
I have 4 systems:
Desktop application
Custom Server
Resource Server
Identity Provider
The desktop application is the one that is directly used by the user, and it will request an access token through the regular auth_code flow from the Identity Provider. This desktop application will then request resources in the resource API, for which it needs an access token. This process is working as standard.
Now I also want the Custom Server application to request resources from the resource server. Normally you would use client credentials for this, because it is server to server, but the resources are owned by the user, so I'd want an access token specifically for these resources.
For this I now start a second auth_code flow on the desktop application to request an authorization code for the Custom Server. I then send this auth_code back to the Custom Server, which exchanges it for an access token. This works, but I would prefer if I didn't have to start a full on auth_code flow on the desktop application for this second process, as I know that the user is authorized to request this auth_code, and the consent type for the Custom Server is implicit in this case.
I have a really interesting and difficult task. What I need is to realise next authentication chain.
Imagin, that you have a secured application, lets it's going to be java Spring Boot app, but it's not matter. And the authentication flow is going to be next:
User goes to my Spring Boot App in the first time and see login form.
User types his username and password.
My app takes this data and send REST-request to openAm instance.
OpenAm instance recieves request, takes user credentials and send another authentication request to another identity service via SAML.
If identity service says, that user exists, OpenAm configures JWT-Token and send it back to my app in response.
My app send this JWT back to client, and client sends this jwt-token with every next request to my backend, which validates this token.
My problem is that I am new in SSO and OpenAm particulary. But what I'v already done is I cinfigured two instances of OpenAm. One works as Identity Server, and the second works as Service Provider. But I have no idea what to do next.
How to configure OpenAm instance which works as Service Provider to be able to recieve simple REST request with user credentials and send it to Identity Provider via SAML next? And is it even possible to implement my case?
Thank you!
This does not work when you use OpenAM REST based authentication, however it would work when you just do SSO from your App with OpenAM ,e.g. via SAML or OIDC or REST SSO call.
OpenAM could then act as a 'federation hub'. At OpenAM you can delegate the Authentication via SAML or OIDC to an upstream IdP where the actual authentication happens.
I am quite new to Asp.net core identity and Identity Server 4. I am following online training course on implementing Authentication using Open Id Connect with asp.net core and Identity server 4.
If I further illustrate my solutions having Asp.net core mvc web application as client. Another asp.net core mvc web app as IDP (Identity Server4) and another asp.net core mvc web api as resource server.
For un-authenticated Users Login page on IDP is appearing. Problem for me is how does client web (asp.net core web app) knows user is not authenticated? My guess is when user first time access web app access token is not presenting on authorization header so authentication middleware knows this is not authentication request and redirect request to IDP Is it correct?
Then user redirect to Logic view of Account Controller how that redirection configured on IDP (I mean here is how exactly redirect to Account controller login page)?
Furthermore what is purpose of RedirectUris(https://localhost:44326/signin-oidc) configure on IDP. and how it works
By the way in here I am using Authorization Code flow and IdentityServer4.Quickstart.UI AccountController comes from there.
Either you know what api needs authentication, therefore, if you don't have this token available anywhere, you shall redirect the user to the oauth server. Once this one redirects back on your application, you will find the token in the url (a parameter of it if my memory is good). This token will have to be saved in memory for later usage or in your application db (standard browser feature). Then you can make a call to the api using this token that you stored.
If you don't know what api needs authentication or if your token is expired, you make the call to the api anyway, and then you get an 403 error (not authorized). Any 403 error should make the client application decide to redirect the user on the authentication portal to get an new token.
As you use code flow, I suppose you must develop a react, angular or any spa application. So I advice you to use oidc-client. It is a javascript library that is developed by the same guys who developed identity server. It makes the client very simple to develop when dealing with oauth authentication.
Here a more detailed description of the process and check/variable that are done/used:
The client application (javascript/html5) makes a call to the resource server without any token in the authentication http request header
The resource server (your api server) tries to get the token in the header
doesn't exists. This means the request is not authenticated.
The resource server return an 403 error to the client before even making any controller call or even authorization checks (roles and such)
The client catches this 403 error, and then knows that a token is necessary for this call.
The client stores the url of the request that failed and its post (if applicable) in the application db
The client redirects the browser to the authentication server url, by transmitting the client id (the identifier of the javascript/html5 application for the authentication server), the scope (what set of resource that should be used by this client application in the context of this authentication request) and the url where the authentication server should reidrect the user back once he is authenticated.
The authentication server asks the users to authenticate (in any way you can imagine, but most of time it is by asking him a login and a password)
if the user is recognized by the authentication server (password that matches the login), this one will check if the return url (the url that was transmitted by the client application for it to be used to redirect the user on the right page once he is authenticated) is in the list of granted return urls for this client application (the RedirectUris you are wondering about). The point of this is to ensure that the the issued token is not transmited to an ungranted application (like a external javascript/html5 application hosted in china that could find a way to suck some data from your api server that only your user can know about and submitting it to a russian api server without the user even noticing it)
it also checks if this client application (not the user... here it's to ensure that a specific client javascript/html5 application can access a set of resources) can use the scope that is requested.
if checks are ok, the authentication server issues an access_token by signing it with its private key.
the authentication server redirects the user on the initially transmitted return url, by setting the access_token in the url as a parameter.
the client application get this parameter and stores it somewhere (anywhere you want, but most of time in the application db and in memory)
the client application get the url that stored for the call to be done again, but with the access_token in the authentication header this time
the api server (or resource server) receives the http request again
finally find an access_token and checks if the it was actually issued by the authentication server (using its public key) since it is the only tiers that is trusted to issue a token.
then it can trusts what is in the token: the user id that is mentionned inside, scopes (set of features) that are allowed to be accessed, etc...
then it calls the controller and returns the response. If the token is expired, (a simple date that is in the token) it doesn't make any call to the controller and return a 403.
FYI, anything that is in the token can be trusted if its signature has been done by then authentication server. This system prevents the man in the middle security breach. Meaning: a guy who got a token by spying the network activity, changes what is inside this token so that he can make any call he want against your api server. Any changes that is made in this token will be detected because the signature (some sort of encrypted hash) won't match the new content anymore. And this signature, if everybody can check it in the world with the public key, only one tiers can issue it with its private key: the authentication server.
I tried to make it as complete as possible and yet still understandable for a newbie in oauth that you claim to be. Hope this helps.
I am building an Angular SPA app and using Okta as an Idp. since its an SPA so I think I need to use Implicit flow. I have two queries here-
Since in Implicit flow a refresh token is not issued, does it means that th user will be logged out of the app after the token expires and he has to log in again?
Why do I need to use Implicit flow in case of SPA? why not Authorization code flow? since I have control over both the front end (SPA) and back end (REST API) . for example in case of Spring MVC architecture for the web app Authorization code flow is possible.
Thanks,
pchh
Yes, if the token expired, you have to re-autenticate. Normally you still have a valid session on the identity providers site, so you can do a "silent" login using an iframe. Libraries like oidc-client support a silent login, which can do this for you.
You need to use implicit (or hybrid) flow, when you need to access to the access token from your javascript app. With authorization code flow your javascript app doesn't get the access token, so if your API needs an access token for authorization, what are you going to send?
If your auth server supports OpenID Connect (OAuth2 extension) and single sign-on (SSO) feature, to get a new token before the old gets expired, use an iframe with a URL you used for authentication, but add prompt=none parameter (and possibly id_token_hint parameter). See OpenId Connect RFC. The prompt=none parameter tells the /auth endpoint to issue a new token(s) if the user has an open SSO session at your OAuth2 server. If not, the request will fail. There is a separate RFC for session management.
The Authorization code flow requires you to access the /token endpoint, which usually requires authentication (client ID + client secret) and you cannot keep the secret safe in a browser. For this reason, the token endpoint doesn't use to support CORS headers, so you cannot access it using XHR. Using the Auth code flow, you get a code as a redirect URL param (?code=), which gets to the server hosting your SPA (browser sends it there after redirect). The implicit flow returns tokens in hash part of the redirect URL (#access_token=), which stays in a browser (it's not sent to the server), so it's safer.
My API uses the devise_token_auth (omniauth) gem for authentication in the Rails 5 backend. The frontend are using ng-token-auth (Angular 1.x).
I have all the API requests in Postman. I did the security implementation and I need authenticate Postman with every request. Devise_token_auth uses authentication with OAuth 2 and I am having difficulty to implementing this authentication.
For this type of authentication, using Postman, what is the process needed to obtain the connection?
For getting the token, there are few things you need to setup.
The client ID, client Secret are the things to be added into your identity serve as clients.
The Auth Url and access token url will be provided by the identity server and you will be able to get the url by hitting the identity server website when its ready for testing.
The grant type also is dependent upon how you setup the client. For the first time try doing the access token instead of authorization code flow.
For the authorization code flow its a two step process. Get the code first and use the code to get the token.
I recomment watching this tutorial which will help you in understanding Identity server and oauth better.
https://app.pluralsight.com/library/courses/oauth2-openid-connect-angular-aspdotnet/table-of-contents