I am working on a website created in ModX. I need to know the way I could execute a php code when any resource is created and also edit template variable associated to the created resource.
You can do this using a plugin, set to run on the OnDocFormSave event. This event has a mode property which will be set to new when the document being saved has just been created - you can do a simple check for this to prevent the plugin being run every time a document is saved.
To set a TV value for the current resource, do this:
// get the required TV object by name (or id)
$tv = $modx->getObject('modTemplateVar',array('name'=>'tvName'));
// set the new value and save it
$tv->setValue($modx->resource->get('id'), $newValue);
$tv->save();
The answer by okyanet is correct, but I've added details for those unfamiliar with MODX.
Create a plugin, and configure it to execute on the two system events 'onBeforeDocFormSave' and 'onDocFormSave'. The two events are fired just before and just after a resource is saved. When a resource is saved, the $mode variable is available to your plugin, and if it is a new resource it's value is modSystemEvent::MODE_NEW and if an update its value is modSystemEvent:MODE_UPD
I've written a gist that includes the full code with examples:
https://gist.github.com/2768300
This example shows you how to target either event through a switch statement, and how to further target the 'new' or 'update' status of the action. For intercepting and changing resource fields, its quite easy using the onBeforeDocFormSave event as you can simply change any resource fieldname with $resource->set('yourFieldname'). There is no $resource->save() required as this happens automatically after this event.
It's apparently much more difficult to save a tv using the onBeforeDocFormSave event, because of the way tvs are processed, so therefore the example shows how to update a tv using the system event 'onDocFormSave'. Again there is no $resource->save() required as tvs are saved immediately when you call 'setValue' on them.
A plugin could be made to function requiring only one of the system events, but as there are advantages to using both states as shown above, and to help explain, I have used both.
Related
I have an application that uses a combination of ContentService.Saved & ContentService.Saving to extend Umbraco to manage content.
I have two websites in one Umbraco installation I am using those methods to keep content up to date in different parts of the tree.
So far I have got everything working the way I wanted to.
Now I want to add a feature that: depending on which Umbraco User is logged in, will either publish the content or simply send it for approval.
So I have changed some lines of code from:
cs.SaveAndPublishWithStatus(savedNode, 0, false)
To this:
cs.SendToPublication(savedNode);
Now the problem that I am finding is that unlike the SaveAndPublishWithStatus() method, the cs.SendToPublication(); doesn't have the option of passing false so that a save event is not raised. So I get into an infinite loop.
When I attach the debugger and manually stop the infinite loop the first time it calls cs.SendToPublication(savedNode); I get exactly the behavior I want.
Any ideas about how I can get round this problem? Is there a different method that I should be using?
You are correct in saying that it currently isn't possible to set raiseEvents to false when sending an item to publication - that's a problem.
I've added that overload in v. 7.6 (http://issues.umbraco.org/issue/U4-9490).
However considering that you need this now, an interim solution could be that you make sure your code is only run once when triggered by the .Saved / .Saving events.
One way to do this would be to check the last saved date (UpdateDate) in your code. If the content was saved within the last second of the current save operation, you know that this is a save event triggered by the save happening in SendToPublication action. Then you also know that the item has already been sent to publication and that this doesn't need to be done again - thereby preventing the endless loop from happening.
I'm trying to set the Visitor ID in Adobe Analytics through DTM.
Above the s_code I have:
var visitor = new Visitor("xxxx")
visitor.trackingServer = "xxx.xx.xx.omtrdc.net"
I've created a data element where the legacy code used to call the
Visitor.getInstance("xxxx");
and set the Visitor ID to %Visitor ID%
That's not working however, and my visitor ID is always just set to %Visitor ID% and obviously not reading any values. I'd really appreciate any input that someone can give me.
Thanks,
Mike
The Visitor ID pops s.visitorID and is in general related to visitor id, but is not the same as s.visitor which is what gets popped for the VisitorAPI integration. DTM does not currently have a built-in field for the s.visitor variable, so you will have to set it yourself within the config, either in the Library Management code editor (assuming you are opting to c/p the core lib and not the "Managed by Adobe" option) or else in the Custom Page Code section.
Since you are popping it in a data layer first, you can reference the data layer like this:
s.visitor = _satellite.getVar('Visitor ID');
NOTE: A separate potential issue you may have is with whether or not the Visitor object is available for your data element. Since data elements are the first thing to be evaluated by DTM, you will need to ensure that the VisitorAPI.js library is output before your top page DTM script include.
If this is a problem for you, or if you are wanting to host VisitorAPI.js within DTM, then you may need to adjust where you are popping that stuff. For example, place the VisitorAPI core code above the custom code as the first stuff within the data element, before:
var visitor = new Visitor("xxxx") visitor.trackingServer = "xxx.xx.xx.omtrdc.net
Or, don't use the data element at all. Instead, put the VisitorAPI code within the Adobe Analytics custom code or core lib section and pop all that stuff (aboove the s.visitor assignment). Or a number of other methods; point is, VisitorAPI stuff must be loaded before the data element can make use of it, same as it must be loaded before Adobe Analytics can make use of it.
So DTM is changing pretty fast and furious right now. They have a "Marketing Cloud Service ID" that works well. Before I used that, however, I did find a way to fix the code. Crayon Violent was right, as usual, that the problem was that the script wasn't available yet. I fixed this by putting the following code in between the VisitorAPI.js and the AppMeasurement stuff in the DTM managed library.
var aA = new AppMeasurement();
aA.visitorNamespace="companyname";
aA.visitor = Visitor.getInstance("companyname");
In addition, there were also some issues using my localhost for testing while trying to see if I had this correct or not. If you are having issues and think you have it correct, it may be worthwhile to elevate it to a different environment.
We are working on transitioning to Zephyr for JIRA from HP QC/QTP; but a tiny wiggle has presented itself:
When creating a new issue from a test run; the tester has to manually enter version info for the new defect, which on its own is fine, but it's an additional step, and on occasion forgotten.
What we would like then, is for the field "Affects Version/s" to be automatically filled based on either the state of the project, or the sepcific values set in fields in the test.
How can this be achieved?
Allright. You can add custom javascript to JIRA by going to JIRA Administration -> System -> User Interface -> Announcement Banner.
The easiest way is to add a tag linking to your javascript file (wherever it is, must be available to all users. Preferably on the same server as your JIRA installation or a public domain).
Example:
<script type="text/javascript" src="http://YOUR_JIRA_SERVER/includes/custom/javascript/custom.js"></script>
If you add it like above, go into your JIRA installation into the atlassian-jira/includes/ folder and add a folder called custom within which you add another folder called javascript and create a file called custom.js.
In that file, add the following code:
AJS.$(document).ready(function()
{
AJS.$(document.body).on('change', '#issuetype-field', function()
{
var issuetype = AJS.$(this).val();
if(issuetype === "Test") //Might want to change this!
{
AJS.$("#fixVersions").val(17403); //Might want to change this!
}
});
});
This will add an eventlistener to the issuetype-field input found in the create modal window in JIRA. When it changes (which it automatically does on load, then on every user select) it check its value to see if it's Test and if so changes the fixVersion input to a whatever you want to set it to (change this to match your own preferences).
Using jQuery with jira is a bit tricky, you need to use the AJS object to access the jQuery object (more information here: https://docs.atlassian.com/aui/latest/docs/applicationHeader.html).
The two parts you need to change are the actual names and values of your issuetype and your fix version (use firebug or your browsers equivalent to get this).
I've tried this and it worked well! Good luck!
I have a view data source that uses a view key to access documents and show them in a repeat with var "posts". within the repeat I have a document data source with var "post" that gets's the the unid of the documents using posts.getUniversalID().
further down the repeat I have another document data source "newcomment" that is a response and take the parent id as: post.getDocument().getUniversalID()
below the newcomment data source I have an editbox and a submit button which saves the comment as a response to the "post" using newcomment.save()
Here is my problem
two people access the same xpage. personA enters the page and starts writing a comment to a post. in the same time personB creates a new post and submit it before personA submits the comment. What happens now is that the comments gets binded to the latest post and not to the post personA responded to.
I tried anothoher thing also, let's say there is 10 posts in that database. personA and personB access the xpages. personA start writing a comment to post number 8. at the same time personB creates two new posts in the database. when personA now submits the comment it seem to get bind to the same index which is now two posts up. but still index 8. which is ofcourse the wrong post.
If I change the repeat to "createControlsAtPageCreation" ie.e repeatControls=true the comment is attached to the correct post but then I run into another problem that the view is not updated to show the latest posts.
my repeat is wihtin a custom control that is loaded dynamically using the dynamic content control in extlib.
As information here is what I have found about the repeatControls settings
Setting the repeatControls property to true instructs the repeat control to create a new copy of its children for each iteration over the dataset.
When the Repeat control is configured with the property
repeatControls=“true” , it repeats its contents only once, at page load time
So my question here is that I do not understand what is going on. why is my comment attached to the wrong parent document? and is there a way I can prevent this and still have new posts displayed correctly
thanks for your help
Without the code it's a bit hard to imagine what exactly is going one here but this looks very similar to problem that I had with repeat control and value binding.
Long story short the problem was connecet to repeatControls property set to false. When it was like that data binding were working only for first element in collection - all data was somehow magically saved to this first object! I managed to get this working by using combination of dynamic content control rebuild and repeatControls set to true. Only then databindings were working property.
It seems like if You are repeating rendering only (and this is what repeatControls set to false do) the decoding phase of jsf lifecycle goes foobar.
Without your XSP markup, it's difficult to be absolutely definitive but it appears that you're app code is creating and persisting the datasources and components per row during page load - therefore increasing the overall size and complexity of the component tree also. You should alternatively try an approach that will lazy-load the datasource only when requested by the end-user (eg: edit / reply).
Refer to the XPages Extension Library demo application (XPagesExt.nsf) for examples that use such a dynamic approach. In particular, look at Core_InPlaceForm.xsp which demonstrates using the xe:inPlaceForm control within a xp:repeat. And also see Domino_ForumView.xsp which demonstrates using the xe:forumView and xe:forumPost controls to manage and visualize a hierarchical thread. Also consider the concurrency mode that best suits your requirements when it actually comes to saving any given post or comment (fail, createConflict, force, exception) and document locking for high contention situations. The above-mentioned controls all provide the highest level of dynamic control and datasource creation and destruction.
Please feel free to send me on a worked example database, where I can understand your exact use case - DM me or email me.
I'm fairly familiar with REST principles, and have read the relevant dissertation, Wikipedia entry, a bunch of blog posts and StackOverflow questions on the subject, but still haven't found a straightforward answer to a common case:
I need to request a resource to display. Depending on the resource's state, I need to render either a read-only or an editable representation. In both cases, I need to GET the resource. How do I construct a URL to get the read-only or editable version?
If my user follows a link to GET /resource/<id>, that should suffice to indicate to me that s/he needs the read-only representation. But if I need to server up an editable form, what does that URL look like? GET /resource/<id>/edit is obvious, but it contains a verb in the URL. Changing that to GET /resource/<id>/editable solves that problem, but at a seemingly superficial level. Is that all there is to it -- change verbs to adjectives?
If instead I use POST to retrieve the editable version, then how do I distinguish between the POST that initially retrieves it, vs the POST that saves it? My (weak) excuse for using POST would be that retrieving an editable version would cause a change of state on the server: locking the resource. But that only holds if my requirements are to implement such a lock, which is not always the case. PUT fails for the same reason, plus PUT is not enabled by default on the Web servers I'm running, so there are practical reasons not to use it (and DELETE).
Note that even in the editable state, I haven't made any changes yet; presumably when I submit the resource to the Web server again, I'd POST it. But to get something that I can later POST, the server has to first serve up a particular representation.
I guess another approach would be to have separate resources at the collection level:
GET /read-only/resource/<id> and GET /editable/resource/<id> or GET /resource/read-only/<id> and GET /resource/editable/<id> ... but that looks pretty ugly to me.
Thoughts?
1) It is perfectly valid to have two distinct resources, one for viewing and one for editing some domain concept. Just be aware that because they are two different URIs from REST's perspective they are two different resources. Too often people conflate resource with domain object. That's why they end up being stuck only doing CRUD.
2) Don't get too hung up on the name of the resource. The important thing is that you realize that what the URI points to is a "thing", "a resource". If that's more obvious to you with editable instead of edit then use that. Having a verb in your URL doesn't make your application wrong, it just makes it a bit less readable to the human developer. Using a verb in the URL to try and redefine the semantics of the HTTP method, now that's a violation of the uniform interface constraint.
In REST, editing an existing resource is accomplished by a client GET-ing a representation of that resource, making changes to the representation, and then doing a PUT of the new representation back to the server.
So to just read a resource your REST client program would do a:
GET http://www.example.com/SomeResource
And to edit that resource:
GET http://www.example.com/SomeResource
... edit it ...
PUT http://www.example.com/SomeResource
Normally simultaneous updates are handled by letting the last PUT arriving at the server overwrite the earlier ones, on the assumption that it represents a newer state. But in your case you want to guard against this.
Carefully consider #Jason's suggestion to maintain an optional parallel lock resource for each main resource. Your client would first create the lock, do the edit, then delete the lock. Your system would need to release a lock automatically if the user making the lock subsequently never saves any changes. This would look like:
GET http://www.example.com/SomeResource
... user presses an edit button ...
PUT http://www.example.com/SomeResource/lock
... user edits the resource's representation ...
PUT http://www.example.com/SomeResource
DELETE http://www.example.com/SomeResource/lock
You'd need to do some appropriate error handling if the user is trying to edit a resource that's locked by someone else.
It sounds like you feel you're constrained by the current limitations of HTML. If you use a server-side REST framework like Restlet (for Java), it supports the notion of "overloaded POST", where you can use POST but tack on a query string argument like method=PUT or method=DELETE. If you're writing your own server-side components they can use this trick too.
There are tricks you can play at the HTML level too. For instance your page can have a read-only part that's initially displayed, and an input form that's initially not shown. When the user presses the edit button, your JavaScript hides the read-only part and shows the input form.
Be sure to read Richardson and Ruby's Restful Web Services (O'Reilly) too. It's extremely helpful.
I don't think returning a form or just values is up to a REST server, but the responsibility of the client. Whether a resource is editable is a property of the resource, and not something defined by the URL.
In other words: The URL for getting the resource is GET /resource/<id>. This has a property editable. If a user wants a form it can retrieve the resource from the same URL and populate the form. The client can than PUT/POST changes.
How do I construct a URL to get the read-only or editable version?
There's an underlying problem here, which is that you are constructing URLs in the first place - appending IDs to hard-coded URLs is not REST. Roy Fielding has written about this very mistake. Whichever document prompts you to edit the resource should contain the URI to the editable variant of that resource. You follow that URI, whether that's /resource/editable or /editable/resource is outside the scope of REST.
If instead I use POST to retrieve the editable version, then how do I distinguish between the POST that initially retrieves it, vs the POST that saves it?
You perform a GET (not a POST) to read the resource, and POST (or PUT) to write the resource.
If you want to create a lock on the resource in question, use POST to write to the resource (or the resource's container, with the resource ID encoded in the body of the POST), and have the server create a lock as a new resource, and return an ID of that resource as the response to the POST. (with authentication issues beyond the scope of your question or this answer)
Then to unlock the lock, either use a DELETE on the lock resource, or POST to the lock's container.
I guess your question could be "how to identify the readonly representation that return with GET action in PUT action?". You could do this:
<Root>
<readonly>
<p1><p1>
...
<readonly>
<others>
...
<others>
<Root>
After parsing the request XML from PUT you can ignore the readonly part and process others. In Response, return 200 status and leave a message saying the part in readonly is ignored.
Is it your expected?